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The Eternal Sabbath

The Eternal Sabbath
By Let Us Reason Ministries

What some claim is that the 10 are the eternal laws of God, they began with God. This would mean they have no beginning and no ending. The existence of an eternal law of God would be to who? It can't be the Ten Commandments. How can the 10 be eternal laws if they include "thou shalt not" to man? There was no man until God created him! Whom would they be for? They couldn't be for God, God does not sin; which is the very reason the law was given to man! Deuteronomy says to keep the law that it may be well with you, God doesn't give the law for His sake, but ours. Neither could the Sabbath be an eternal commandment for mankind since the Sabbath was made for man. There could be no Sabbath commandment before the creation of a human race. (Mk. 2:27; Gen. 2:2, 3). Even Sabbatarian's admit it is found in the day God completed His creating.

However, there was no Sabbath command given to man to observe after the creation because only God created and rested.

He rested only once, while the Sabbath command to Israel is to rest every 7th day, once a week. The Sabbath day appears to have been made for man, but in the book of Exodus it shows that it was specifically given at Sinai incorporated in the 10, not at creation. When God rested from His work of creation on the seventh day He sanctified it afterward, set it apart, which it was later to be given to Israel (to man). In other words, the Sabbath day was made for man in the respect of a future gift not for man in the garden. And not for all men, since no one ever kept it or was ever punished for not keeping it, until Ex.16. It was given as a gift to Israel after their bondage for 400 years.

God gave commandments to Adam and Eve to obey, but they certainly were not the 10. The only commandments God gave Adam were to be fruitful and keep the garden Gen. 1:28 and not eat from the tree of knowledge Gen. 2:17. Two do, and one don't commandment. There was no Sabbath command, nor any other such as no stealing or adultery, they were innocent in a state of sinlessness (temporarily), besides, no one else was there for the law to be needed. After the fall and the flood we can see the commands given, we don't have to guess.

Law keepers state we could not know what sin is except by the law which they interpret to be the 10 commandments. Sin is something more than a violation of the Decalogue. John says, "All unrighteousness is sin." 1 John 5:17 Unbelief is sin, Rom. 14:23, A neglect to do good is sin, James 4:17, but these are not a transgression of the Decalogue. There are many wrongs which the Decalogue does not address; consider homosexuality and drunkenness. Rom 3:21-24: " But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." God writes to us that the law came so we may know how to measure sin. Rom.5:20: " Moreover the law entered that the offense might abound. But where sin abounded, grace abounded much more." It was to increase ones ability to sin, to exaggerate its practice so it would be evident what sin is. The reason is we are dense, and sin darkens the conscience. Rom.4:15: "Because the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no transgression." The law was a standard so there would be no question that we are sinners. We often hear sin is a transgression of the law. Yes but its more than that, transgressions are a particular kind of sin. SIN - has different Hebrew and Greek words and meanings. All sin is the breaking of the law meaning to violate Gods perfect standard. Each has a slightly different description in relation to what is violated.

To make everyone guilty = Rom. 3:19 whose the everyone if it was an eternal law. Do we see that this is not the right terminology for it.

The law was made to increase sin = Rom. 7:9-11 how can this be if there was no sin in the world until Adam and Eve sinned?

Rom.3:20: "for through the Law {comes} the knowledge of sin." No need for a law unless their was a potential to break it, so it needed creatures.

So the commandments were given to man to obey God, they are not eternal. If one wants to say they reflect his nature of perfection as far as pertaining to morality in mans behavior, this I can concede. But to say the 10 and especially the Sabbath is eternal when Jesus says It was made for man proves it is not. The laws (10) were given to Israel just as John the apostle says the LAW WAS GIVEN THROUGH MOSES.( Jn.1:17). Nothing could be clearer.

Neh. 9:13-14: "You came down also on Mount Sinai, and spoke with them from heaven, and gave them just ordinances and true laws, good statutes and commandments. You made known to them Your holy Sabbath, and commanded them precepts, statutes and laws, by the hand of Moses Your servant." Notice God says He made them known at Mt. Sinai, not before. Also it was by the hand of Moses. It was not a previous command that became incorporated into the Mosaic law. But made known at Mount Sinai. John the apostle agrees with this, saying in Jn.1:17: "the LAW came through Moses..." This clarifies that the Sabbath was not previously known by Israel because it was made known by Moses, it is attributed to coming to man by him. It cannot be compared to marriage, circumcision or the sacrifices which were already practiced and clearly taught in the Old Testament. There were laws that were given at different times throughout mankind's history, the Sabbath clearly was one law given to the nation of Israel after their exodus, not before.

Original Article


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